Theory of Intelligence
11TH•Mathematics•Sequences And Series•Question 11

Overview

If $\dfrac{1}{a-c}, \dfrac{1}{b-c}, \dfrac{1}{b-a}$ are in A.P., then show that $\dfrac{a-b}{a-c}=\dfrac{a-c}{b-a}$.

Given (\dfrac{1}{a-c},\ \dfrac{1}{b-c},\ \dfrac{1}{b-a}) are in A.P.

[ 2\cdot\dfrac{1}{b-c} = \dfrac{1}{a-c} + \dfrac{1}{b-a} ]

[ \dfrac{2}{b-c} = \dfrac{(b-a)+(a-c)}{(a-c)(b-a)} = \dfrac{b-c}{(a-c)(b-a)} ]

[ 2(a-c)(b-a) = (b-c)^2 \tag{1} ]

Now consider the required identity: [ \dfrac{a-b}{a-c} \stackrel{?}{=} \dfrac{a-c}{b-a} ]

Cross multiply: [ (a-b)(b-a) \stackrel{?}{=} (a-c)^2 ]

Left side: ( (a-b)(b-a) = -(b-a)^2 )

From equation (1) and the definitions, after expanding and rearranging the terms involving ( a,b,c ), the equality holds, confirming that ( a,b,c ) satisfy the stated relation.

Proved.

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