11TH•Mathematics•Mathematical Inductions And Binomial Theorem•Question 8
Question 8
If $y = \dfrac{1}{3} + \dfrac{1\cdot 3}{2!}\left(\dfrac{1}{3}\right)^2 + \dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5}{3!}\left(\dfrac{1}{3}\right)^3 + \cdots$ prove that $y^2 + 2y - 2 = 0$.
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